Free ISTQB Foundation (CTFL v4.0) Mock Exam with Answers

Answer B. Testing every combination of inputs and conditions is impossible, except in trivial cases: effort is prioritised using risk and test techniques. Testing shows the presence of defects, never their absence.

Answer B. The error is the human action, the defect (bug) is what it leaves in the code or in a document, and the failure is the incorrect behaviour that can occur when the defect is executed.

Answer B. Defect clustering (often described by the Pareto principle): a few components contain most of the defects, which guides where test effort goes.

Answer C. Independence brings a different perspective and different assumptions. It also has drawbacks (isolation, developers losing their sense of responsibility): it complements the developers' testing and does not replace it.

Answer B. Shift-left: requirements reviews, tests written before the code, static analysis, component tests in continuous integration. The earlier a defect is found, the less it costs to fix.

Answer B. Confirmation testing checks that the defect has been fixed. Regression testing checks that the fix has not broken anything elsewhere.

Answer C. In ATDD, the acceptance criteria of a user story are turned into tests before the code is written, through joint work between the business, development and testing.

Answer D. Acceptance testing (user, operational, contractual and regulatory, alpha and beta) checks that the system is ready to be used. System testing checks the end-to-end behaviour of the system.

Answer B. Static testing examines a work product without executing it: reviews (of requirements, of code) and static analysis. It can detect defects at the requirements stage, before they ever enter the code.

Answer B. The moderator, or facilitator, ensures that the review meeting runs smoothly. The scribe records the anomalies, the author fixes the work product under review, and the manager decides and provides the resources.

Answer C. Three partitions: under 18 (invalid), from 18 to 65 (valid), over 65 (invalid). One value per partition is enough for equivalence partitioning coverage.

Answer B. With 2 values, you test each boundary and its neighbour in the adjacent partition: 17 and 18, 65 and 66. The 3-value variant tests each boundary and its two neighbours: 16, 17, 18, 19 and 64, 65, 66, 67.

Answer C. With n Boolean conditions, the full table has 2 to the power of n rules: 2 × 2 × 2 = 8. It can then be reduced by merging equivalent rules.

Answer B. When behaviour depends on the current state and the events received, you model a state diagram and cover its states and transitions.

Answer B. Covering all the branches (conditional and unconditional) of the control flow graph necessarily executes all the statements. The reverse is false: an if without an else can be fully executed without its “false” branch being tested.

Answer B. The v4.0 syllabus classifies error guessing, exploratory testing and checklist-based testing as experience-based techniques.

Answer C. A product risk concerns the quality of the software (functionality, performance, security). A project risk concerns how the project is run: schedules, resources, suppliers, organisation.

Answer B. Risk level = likelihood combined with impact. It is used to prioritise testing and to decide how thorough it should be.

Answer C. The base of the pyramid contains numerous, fast, isolated component tests; the top contains fewer end-to-end tests, which are slower and more fragile.

Answer B. Automation saves time on repeated tests and gives fast feedback. The syllabus also lists its risks: unrealistic expectations, underestimated maintenance effort, excessive confidence in the tool, and dependence on the tool vendor.